I solved this by hand to confirm Maple solution.

Solve $u_{t}=u_{xx}$ with initial conditions $u\left(  x,0\right)
=\sin\left(  x\right)  $ and B.C. $u_{x}\left(  0,t\right)  =1,u_{x}\left(
\pi,t\right)  =-1$. For $t>0,0<x<\pi$. 

Since the boundary conditions are not homogeneous, we can't use separation of
variables. Let the solution be

$$
u=v\left(  x,t\right)  +r\left(  x\right)
$$

Where $v\left(  x,t\right)  $ is the solution to $v_{t}=v_{xx}$ and homogeneous
B.C. $v_{x}\left(  0,t\right)  =0,v_{x}\left(  \pi,t\right)  =0$ and $r\left(
x\right)  $ is any reference solution which only needs to satisfy the
non-homogeneous boundary conditions: $r^{\prime}\left(  0\right)  =1,r^{\prime
}\left(  \pi\right)  =-1$. By guessing, let  $r\left(  x\right)  =Ax+Bx^{2}$.
Let see if this satisfies the boundary conditions. $r^{\prime}=A+2Bx$. At
$x=0$ this implies $1=A$. Hence $r=x+Bx^{2}$. Now  $r^{\prime}=1+2Bx$. At
$x=\pi$ this gives $-1=1+2B\pi$ or $B=-\frac{1}{\pi}$. Therefore
$$
r\left(  x\right)  =x-\frac{1}{\pi}x^{2}
$$

Substituting $u=v\left(  x,t\right)  +r\left(  x\right)  $ into the
PDE $u_{t}=u_{xx}$ and noting that $r^{\prime\prime}\left(  x\right)
=-\frac{2}{\pi}$ gives

\begin{equation}
v_{t}=v_{xx}-\frac{2}{\pi}\tag{1}
\end{equation}


PDE (1) is now solved using eigenfunction expansion. We need to find
eigenfunctions and eigenvalues of $v_{t}=v_{xx}$ with  $v_{x}\left(
0,t\right)  =0,v_{x}\left(  \pi,t\right)  =0$. This is known PDE and have
eigenfunctions and eigenvalues as follows (ref 1). For zero eigenvalue, the
eigenfunction is an arbitrary constant. Say $\beta$. let $\beta=1$ since scale
is not important.

$$
\Phi_{0}\left(  x\right)  =1
$$


And for $n=1,2,3,\cdots$
\begin{align*}
\Phi_{n}\left(  x\right)    & =\cos\left(  \sqrt{\lambda_{n}}x\right)  \\
& =\cos\left(  nx\right)
\end{align*}

with eigenvalues $\lambda_{n}=n^{2}$ for $n=1,2,3,\cdots$. Now we can use
eigenfunction expansion and assume the solution to (1) is
\begin{equation}
v\left(  x,t\right)  =\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}A_{n}\left(  t\right)  \Phi
_{n}\left(  x\right)  \tag{2}
\end{equation}


Plugging this into the PDE (1) gives

$$
\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}A_{n}^{\prime}\left(  t\right)  \Phi_{n}\left(  x\right)
=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}A_{n}\left(  t\right)  \Phi_{n}^{\prime\prime}\left(
x\right)  -\frac{2}{\pi}
$$


But $\Phi_{n}^{\prime\prime}\left(  x\right)  =-\lambda_{n}\Phi_{n}\left(
x\right)  $ and the above simplifies to

$$
\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}A_{n}^{\prime}\left(  t\right)  \Phi_{n}\left(  x\right)
=-\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}A_{n}\left(  t\right)  \lambda_{n}\Phi_{n}\left(
x\right)  -\frac{2}{\pi}
$$


Since eigenfunctions are complete, we can expand $\frac{2}{\pi}$ using them
and the above becomes

\begin{align}
\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}A_{n}^{\prime}\left(  t\right)  \Phi_{n}\left(  x\right)
& =-\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}A_{n}\left(  t\right)  \lambda_{n}\Phi_{n}\left(
x\right)  -\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}C_{n}\Phi_{n}\left(  x\right)  \nonumber\\
A_{n}^{\prime}\left(  t\right)  \Phi_{n}\left(  x\right)  +A_{n}\left(
t\right)  \lambda_{n}\Phi_{n}\left(  x\right)    & =-C_{n}\Phi_{n}\left(
x\right)  \nonumber\\
A_{n}^{\prime}\left(  t\right)  +A_{n}\left(  t\right)  \lambda_{n}  &
=-C_{n}\tag{3}
\end{align}


To find $C_{n}$

$$
\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}C_{n}\Phi_{n}\left(  x\right)  =\frac{2}{\pi}
$$


For $n=0$

$$
C_{0}\Phi_{0}\left(  x\right)  =\frac{2}{\pi}
$$


But $\Phi_{0}\left(  x\right)  =1$, hence
$$
C_{0}=\frac{2}{\pi}
$$


All other $C_{m}$ for $m>0$ are zero. 

Hence (3) becomes, for
$n=0$ (since $\lambda_{0}=0$)

\begin{align*}
A_{0}^{\prime}\left(  t\right)    & =- \frac{2}{\pi}\\
A_{0}\left(  t\right)    & =-\frac{2}{\pi}t+B_{0}
\end{align*}


Where $B_{0}$ is integration constant. For $n>0$ (3) becomes

$$
A_{n}^{\prime}\left(  t\right)  +A_{n}\left(  t\right)  n^{2}=0
$$


This has the solution

$$
A_{n}\left(  t\right)  =B_{n}e^{-n^{2}t}
$$


Where $B_{n}$ is constant of integration. Hence from (2)

\begin{align*}
v\left(  x,t\right)    & =\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}A_{n}\left(  t\right)  \Phi
_{n}\left(  x\right)  \\
& =A_{0}\left(  t\right)  +\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}A_{n}\left(  t\right)  \Phi
_{n}\left(  x\right)  \\
& =-\frac{2}{\pi}t+B_{0}+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}B_{n}e^{-n^{2}t}\cos\left(
nx\right)
\end{align*}


Since $u=v\left(  x,t\right)  +r\left(  x\right)  $ then the solution becomes

\begin{equation}
u\left(  x,t\right)  =\left(  x-\frac{1}{\pi}x^{2}\right)  -\frac{2}{\pi
}t+B_{0}+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}B_{n}e^{-n^{2}t}\cos\left(  nx\right)  \tag{4}
\end{equation}


At $t=0$

\begin{equation}
\sin\left(  x\right)  =\left(  x-\frac{1}{\pi}x^{2}\right)  +B_{0}+\sum
_{n=1}^{\infty}B_{n}\cos\left(  nx\right)  \tag{5}
\end{equation}


case $n=0$

$$
\int_{0}^{\pi}\sin\left(  x\right)  \cos\left(  \sqrt{\lambda_{0}}x\right)
dx=\int_{0}^{\pi}\left(  x-\frac{1}{\pi}x^{2}\right)  \cos\left(
\sqrt{\lambda_{0}}x\right)  dx+\int_{0}^{\pi}B_{0}\cos\left(  \sqrt
{\lambda_{0}}x\right)  dx
$$


But $\lambda_{0}=0$ hence

\begin{align*}
0  & =\int_{0}^{\pi}\left(  x-\frac{1}{\pi}x^{2}\right)  dx+\int_{0}^{\pi
}B_{0}dx\\
0  & =\frac{\pi^{2}}{6}+B_{0}\pi\\
B_{0}  & =\frac{-\pi}{6}
\end{align*}


For $n>0$, Multiplying both sides of (5) by $\cos\left(  mx\right)  $ and integrating

$$
\int_{0}^{\pi}\sin\left(  x\right)  \cos\left(  mx\right)  dx=\int_{0}^{\pi
}\left(  x-\frac{1}{\pi}x^{2}\right)  \cos\left(  mx\right)  dx+\sum
_{n=1}^{\infty}B_{n}\int_{0}^{\pi}\cos\left(  nx\right)  \cos\left(
mx\right)  dx
$$


For $m=1$

\begin{align*}
0  & =0+B_{1}\frac{\pi}{2}\\
B_{1}  & =\frac{2}{\pi}
\end{align*}


For $m>1$

\begin{align*}
-\frac{1+\left(  -1\right)  ^{m}}{m^{2}\left(  -1+m^{2}\right)  }  &
=\frac{\pi}{2}B_{n}\\
B_{n}  & =\frac{-2}{\pi}\left(  \frac{1}{m^{2}}\frac{\left(  -1\right)
^{m}+1}{m^{2}-1}\right)
\end{align*}


Hence solution (4) becomes

\begin{align*}
u\left(  x,t\right)    & =\left(  x-\frac{1}{\pi}x^{2}\right)  -\frac{2}{\pi
}t-\frac{\pi}{6}+\frac{2}{\pi}+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}B_{n}e^{-n^{2}t}\cos\left(
nx\right)  \\
   & =\left(  x-\frac{1}{\pi}x^{2}\right)  -\frac{2}{\pi
}t-\frac{\pi}{6}+\frac{2}{\pi}+\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{-2}{\pi}\left(
\frac{1}{m^{2}}\frac{\left(  -1\right)  ^{m}+1}{m^{2}-1}\right)  e^{-n^{2}
t}\cos\left(  nx\right)
\end{align*}

Maple gives

    heqn := diff(u(x, t), t) = diff(u(x, t), x$2):
    ic := u(x, 0) = sin(x):
    bc := eval(diff(u(x,t),x),x=0)=1,  eval( diff(u(x,t),x),x=Pi)=-1:
    sol := pdsolve({heqn, ic, bc}, u(x, t))

[![enter image description here][1]][1]

Here is verification


    mysol=(x-1/Pi x^2)-2/Pi t-Pi/6+2/Pi-
       2/Pi Inactivate[Sum[((-1)^n+1)/(n^2(n^2-1)) Cos[n x]Exp[-n^2 t],{n,2,Infinity}]];
    
    D[mysol/.Infinity->20//Activate,x]/.t->0/.x->0
    (*1*)
    D[mysol/.Infinity->20//Activate,x]/.t->0/.x->Pi
    (*-1*)
    Plot[{ic,Sin[x]},{x,0,Pi},AxesOrigin->{0,0}]

![Mathematica graphics](https://i.sstatic.net/jvLC4.png)


  [1]: https://i.sstatic.net/cN3nQ.png
  [2]: https://www.12000.org/my_notes/boundary_values/report.htm#x1-70001.5
ref (1): [boundary_values][2]