I am following a caluclation in this paper, equation (7). There, it is stated that the integral $$\int_0^{2\pi}d\phi e^{-ik_rr\cos(v_{\phi}-\phi)}=J_0(k_rr)$$results in the zeroth-order Bessel function. Why, then, does Mathematica not provide the same result?
Assuming[r \[Element] Reals && vr \[Element] Reals && v\[Phi] \[Element] Reals
, Integrate[E^(-I r Subscript[v, r] Cos[v\[Phi] - \[Phi]]), {\[Phi], 0,
2 \[Pi]}] // FullSimplify]
As an output, I simply get the integral in LateX form as if I would have written it down by hand.
Edit: Even weirder, if I leave out the $v_{\phi}$ in the integrand, I get the result, even though both should be the same as they are related by a simple change of variables: $v_{\phi} - \phi = \alpha$
Ìntegrate
function, e.g. input is real, integer-based, etc. However, for me, the expression still doesn't get calculated and stays purely symbolic $\endgroup$Subscript[v, r]
whereas in the assumptions you usedvr
. These should be the same. $\endgroup$