The Confluent hypergeometric function of first kind (aka Kummer's function) is defined as
$${\mathbf{M}}\left(a,b,z\right)=\frac{1}{\Gamma\left(a\right)\Gamma\left(b-a% \right)}\int_{0}^{1}e^{zt}t^{a-1}(1-t)^{b-a-1}\,\mathrm{d}t$$
I know from NIST-DLMF integral results (equation 13.10.4) that
$$\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-zt}t^{b-1}{\mathbf{M}}\left(a,b,t\right)\,\mathrm{d}t=z^{% -b}\left(1-\frac{1}{z}\right)^{-a}, \Re\{b\} >0,\Re\{z\} > 1$$
and I want to calculate the integral
$$\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{st}e^{-kt}t^{b-1}{\mathbf{M}}\left(a,b,t\right)\,\mathrm{d}t$$
by comparing and substitution, I calculated the results as
$$\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{st}e^{-kt}t^{b-1}{\mathbf{M}}\left(a,b,t\right)\,\mathrm{d}t = (s-k+1)^{-a} (k-s)^{a-b} , \Re\{b\}>0, \Re\{k-s\}>1$$
However when I plug the integral into Wolfram Mathematica 13.2, I get the following result
$$\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{st}e^{-kt}t^{b-1}{\mathbf{M}}\left(a,b,t\right)\,\mathrm{d}t = \cos (\pi a) (-k+s+1)^{-a} (k-s)^{a-b}\text{ if }, \Re\{b\}>0$$
How is this possible?!? What is going on? Did I made a mistake?
The command I used in Mathematica is as follow
Integrate[Exp[s*t]*Exp[-k*t]*t^(b - 1)*Hypergeometric1F1[a,b,t], {t,0,Infinity}]
There is also link to mathematics stack exchange for this same question cause I thought maybe my integration is wrong.
Thanks in advance