To find eigenmodes, time is not involved. Following Wikipeida You just need to solve an ODE and not a PDE
This below is the code to reproduce the eigenmodes shown at the above page.
I tried to use Mathematica's NDEigesystem on this, but I could not make it do it, so did it by "hand".
The trick to finding eigenvalues is not to put all 4 boundaries conditions in at once, else Mathematica will return trivial solution of course, since all BC are zero and there is no load (it is free vibration). So we put 3 BC. You pick which 3 to put in and which one to keep out. Below I kept out the last one. (the third derivative on the free end).
After you get solution, it will have one constant of integration in it. Then by inspection, we can see now the condition to make the solution non-trivial. Now we set up an equation (it will be nonlinear) to solve for eigenvalues (Letting length of beam = 1).
Now we find the eigenvalues, going back to the ODE and plugging each eigenvalue at a time and putting back now all the 4 BC in. This results in corresponding eigenmode solution. To plot them all on same plot, I normalized them all to 1.
This is the final plot
This is what Wikipedia gives
(ps. For some reason, I had to flip the sign on some of the eigenmodes below to get same plot as Wikipedia. otherwise it was upside down. I have not found out why).
Here is a diagram of the BC (diagram thanks to this page)
For a cantilevered beam, the boundary conditions are as follows: (Thanks to this page)
w(0)=0 . This boundary condition says that the base of the beam (at
the wall) does not experience any deflection. w'(0)=0 . We also assume
that the beam at the wall is horizontal, so that the derivative of the
deflection function is zero at that point. w''(L)=0 . This boundary
condition models the assumption that there is no bending moment at the
free end of the cantilever. w'''(L)=0 . This boundary condition models
the assumption that there is no shearing force acting at the free end
of the beam.
Here is the code. This solve the ODE shown above. Notice it has 3 BC and not 4.
ClearAll[w, wHat, x, L];
pde = D[wHat[x], {x, 4}] == w^2 wHat[x];
leftEndBc = {wHat[0] == 0, wHat'[0] == 0};
rightEndBc = {wHat''[L] == 0};
sol = wHat[x] /. First@DSolve[{pde, leftEndBc, rightEndBc}, wHat[x], x]
This is what DSolve
gives
$$
-\frac{c_1 e^{-\sqrt{w} x} \left(e^{L \sqrt{w}+2 \sqrt{w} x} \sin \left(L \sqrt{w}\right)+e^{2 L \sqrt{w}+\sqrt{w} x} \sin \left(\sqrt{w} x\right)-e^{L \sqrt{w}+2 \sqrt{w} x} \cos \left(L
\sqrt{w}\right)-e^{2 L \sqrt{w}+\sqrt{w} x} \cos \left(\sqrt{w} x\right)+2 e^{L \sqrt{w}+\sqrt{w} x} \cos \left(L \sqrt{w}\right) \sin \left(\sqrt{w} x\right)-2 e^{L \sqrt{w}+\sqrt{w} x}
\sin \left(L \sqrt{w}\right) \cos \left(\sqrt{w} x\right)+e^{2 L \sqrt{w}}+e^{L \sqrt{w}} \sin \left(L \sqrt{w}\right)+e^{L \sqrt{w}} \cos \left(L \sqrt{w}\right)-e^{2 \sqrt{w}
x}+e^{\sqrt{w} x} \sin \left(\sqrt{w} x\right)+e^{\sqrt{w} x} \cos \left(\sqrt{w} x\right)\right)}{e^{2 L \sqrt{w}}+2 e^{L \sqrt{w}} \sin \left(L \sqrt{w}\right)-1}
$$
This makes up equation to satisfy the missing BC at right end (the one left out)
eq = FullSimplify[(D[sol, {x, 3}] /. x -> L)]
$$
\frac{2 c_1 w^{3/2} \left(\cos \left(L \sqrt{w}\right) \cosh \left(L \sqrt{w}\right)+1\right)}{\sin \left(L \sqrt{w}\right)+\sinh \left(L \sqrt{w}\right)}
$$
Here is the "manual" step. Looking at the above, since the above is zero (it is the last B.C.), then for non-trivial solution we do not want $c_1=0$, then only other choice to make the above zero is that
$$
\cos \left(L \sqrt{w}\right) \cosh \left(L \sqrt{w}\right)+1=0
$$
Now NSolve
is used to find eigenvalues $w$ (solutions of the above equation). We can use $L=1$ now. Then the equation to solve for frequencies is the above.
frequencies = w /. NSolve[1 + Cos[Sqrt[w]] Cosh[Sqrt[w]] == 0 && 0 < w < 200, w, Reals]
gives
{3.51602, 22.0345, 61.6972, 120.902, 199.86}
These are the first 5 frequencies. Now for each, we solve the ODE again.
pde = D[wHat[x], {x, 4}] == frequencies[[1]]^2 *wHat[x];
L = 1;
leftEndBc = {wHat[0] == 0, wHat'[0] == 0};
rightEndBc = {wHat''[L] == 0, wHat'''[L] == 0};
sol = NDSolveValue[{pde, leftEndBc, rightEndBc}, wHat, {x, 0, 1}];
max = Maximize[{Abs[sol[x]], 0 < x < 1}, x][[1]];
p1 = Plot[Callout[-sol[x]/max, "mode 1", 0.7], {x, 0, 1}, PlotStyle -> Blue]
pde = D[wHat[x], {x, 4}] == frequencies[[2]]^2 *wHat[x];
L = 1;
leftEndBc = {wHat[0] == 0, wHat'[0] == 0};
rightEndBc = {wHat''[L] == 0, wHat'''[L] == 0};
sol = NDSolveValue[{pde, leftEndBc, rightEndBc}, wHat, {x, 0, 1}];
max = Maximize[{Abs[sol[x]], 0 < x < 1}, x][[1]];
p2 = Plot[Callout[-sol[x]/max, "mode 2", .4, .4], {x, 0, 1}, PlotStyle -> Magenta]
pde = D[wHat[x], {x, 4}] == frequencies[[3]]^2 *wHat[x];
L = 1;
leftEndBc = {wHat[0] == 0, wHat'[0] == 0};
rightEndBc = {wHat''[L] == 0, wHat'''[L] == 0};
sol = NDSolveValue[{pde, leftEndBc, rightEndBc}, wHat, {x, 0, 1}];
max = Maximize[{Abs[sol[x]], 0 < x < 1}, x][[1]];
p3 = Plot[Callout[-sol[x]/max, "mode 3", .2], {x, 0, 1}, PlotStyle -> Brown]
pde = D[wHat[x], {x, 4}] == frequencies[[4]]^2 *wHat[x];
L = 1;
leftEndBc = {wHat[0] == 0, wHat'[0] == 0};
rightEndBc = {wHat''[L] == 0, wHat'''[L] == 0};
sol = NDSolveValue[{pde, leftEndBc, rightEndBc}, wHat, {x, 0, 1}];
max = Maximize[{Abs[sol[x]], 0 < x < 1}, x][[1]];
p4 = Plot[Callout[sol[x]/max, "mode 4", Below], {x, 0, 1}, PlotStyle -> {Thick, Green}]
Show[{p1, p2, p3, p4}, PlotRange -> {{0, 1}, {-1.2, 1.2}}]
//.
orReplaceRepeated
. Like this:Table[(((2. i - 1) \[Pi])/(2 l))^2 Sqrt[(\[DoubleStruckCapitalE]*\ \[DoubleStruckCapitalI])/(\[Rho]*S)], {i, 1, 10}] //. {l -> 1., \[Rho] -> 1., S -> 1., \[DoubleStruckCapitalE]*\[DoubleStruckCapitalI] -> 1.}
. $\endgroup$x=1
are weird. Overall, your post is highly inconsistent: From the drawing,x=1
is a free end, but you call it fixed edn in your code. Ifx=1
is supposed to be the free end, then conditions likeD[\[Omega][x, t], {x, 2}] == 0 /. x -> 1
orD[\[Omega][x, t], {x, 3}] == 0 /. x -> 1
should play a role. Also from the picture, the left end appears to be clamped which would result inD[\[Omega][x, t], {x, 1}] == 0 /. x -> 0
instead ofD[ω[0, t], {t, 1}] == 0
. $\endgroup$D[\[Omega][x, t], {t, 1}] /. t -> 0
. But this all would be for simluating the dynamics of the beam. I have no idea why you would expect that you could read oof the eigenfrequencies for that. Maybe this is a specific trick from your textbook, but we cannot tell since you did not even cite it. (Frankly, I do not want to read it.) Please, for your own sake: Meet us half way and at least state the precise PDE that you want to solve in $\LaTeX$. $\endgroup$