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Jun 21, 2023 at 16:08 history became hot network question
Jun 21, 2023 at 10:55 vote accept little star
Jun 21, 2023 at 9:46 answer added Nasser timeline score: 6
Jun 21, 2023 at 9:03 history edited little star CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 21, 2023 at 9:01 comment added little star Thanks for your tips, I've edited the relevant description of the problem. According to your second comment, the problem can be solved efficiently. In other words, it seems to be more convenient to calculate manually than mma. Actually, I also calculated the result manually, I want to verify this result on mma, but its display prevents me from comparing with the result at hand. So, the question this time is to find a way to get a more general solution, which may be compared with the result of manual calculation.
Jun 21, 2023 at 8:36 comment added Nasser Also on closer look, notice that the first ODE in $G(r)$ does not depend on $F(r)$ at all. So all what you need to do is just solve the first ode for $G(r)$ on its own. Then plugin that solution in the second ode and solve for $F(r)$. So what you really have is basically 2 separate first order ode's.
Jun 21, 2023 at 8:30 history edited little star CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 21, 2023 at 8:26 comment added Nasser There is no pde's here. Just two coupled ode equations. Mathematica solved it. The unresolved integrals in the result you see is because it does not how to integrate the functions $g'(r)$ and $f'(r)$ you have there. That is all. It uses K[1],K[2] for integration variables. !Mathematica graphics
Jun 21, 2023 at 8:05 history asked little star CC BY-SA 4.0